Just a reading of the Lord's Prayer in a reconstruction of how Greek may have been pronounced in Roman Palestine during the period (late 1st century) when the Gospel of Matthew is thought to have reached (more or less) its final form. Yes, I read the doxology at the end. Probably an interpolation in the textual sense, but it is the kind of formula that was apparently commonly appended to Jewish and then Christian prayers in the Roman period. So I figured why not?
